Asked by Sam
Suppose f is a function with range (-∞,∞) and g is a function with domain (0, ∞). Is it possible that g and f are inverse functions? Explain.
Answers
Answered by
Steve
I'd say no. The range of a function is the domain of its inverse.
g(f) = x
the domain of g is the range of f.
g(f) = x
the domain of g is the range of f.
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