Asked by Genie_math
Let 1 <= k <= p−1, where p is prime. Show that p choose k is a multiple of p. What if p is not prime?
I think here when we expand p choose k and then input few prime numbers then we always get a multiple of p .
And same with when p is not prime.
I think here when we expand p choose k and then input few prime numbers then we always get a multiple of p .
And same with when p is not prime.
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