Asked by sara
why does 1/(n(n+1)) converges?
Answers
Answered by
Steve
Don't know how far back you have to justify things, but since
1/n^2 converges (to pi^2/6)
and 1/(n(n+1)) < 1/n^2 it also must converge.
1/n^2 converges (to pi^2/6)
and 1/(n(n+1)) < 1/n^2 it also must converge.
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