Asked by sammy
do you know why anything to the zero power is one????
thanks in advance
thanks in advance
Answers
Answered by
Damon
Look below to the question from Usher
Answered by
tchrwill
From the second law of exponents, a^m/a^n = a^(m-n). If m=n we have
a^n/a^n = a(n-n) = a^0. But a^n/a^n = 1. Since quantities that are equal to the same quantity are equal to each other, it follows that a^0 = 1. In words, any quantity (except zero) with a zero exponent must have a numerical value equal to 1.
a^n/a^n = a(n-n) = a^0. But a^n/a^n = 1. Since quantities that are equal to the same quantity are equal to each other, it follows that a^0 = 1. In words, any quantity (except zero) with a zero exponent must have a numerical value equal to 1.
Answered by
mk-tintin
i don't know what is your level in maths..
so you can write x^a/x^a=1
but,in fact,it's wring because it's not defined for x=0
so your answer is right but in high school it's wrong...
so you can write x^a/x^a=1
but,in fact,it's wring because it's not defined for x=0
so your answer is right but in high school it's wrong...
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