Asked by Scooby16
F(x) = 1-x and g(x) = 1/x
These functions have the property that f = f^-1(inverse) and g = g ^-1. That is, the inverse of f is equal to itself and the inverse of g is also equal to itself. Take the composition of each function with itself to show that this is true. Remember, if the function h(x) is equal to its own inverse, then h o h^-1 = x.
These functions have the property that f = f^-1(inverse) and g = g ^-1. That is, the inverse of f is equal to itself and the inverse of g is also equal to itself. Take the composition of each function with itself to show that this is true. Remember, if the function h(x) is equal to its own inverse, then h o h^-1 = x.
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