Asked by Henry1
I have a last doubt.
Thank you
I taught to my students (or my students?) how to speak?
I'll write to you soon.
I can't understand why in English the indirect object is not always preceded by "to". Can you give me examples? Thank you.
He gave his life to his fatherland. Or He fell for his homeland.
Answers
Answered by
Ms. Sue
I taught my students how to speak.
By definition, an indirect object is not preceded by "to." Indirect objects always come between the verb and the direct object, and often follow these verbs: give, bring, teach. This site has more examples.
http://www.slu.edu/colleges/AS/languages/classical/latin/tchmat/grammar/g-indob.html
Indirect objects:
I gave <u>him</u> a cup of coffee.
I taught my <u>students</u>.
The waitress brought <u>us</u> or salads.
By definition, an indirect object is not preceded by "to." Indirect objects always come between the verb and the direct object, and often follow these verbs: give, bring, teach. This site has more examples.
http://www.slu.edu/colleges/AS/languages/classical/latin/tchmat/grammar/g-indob.html
Indirect objects:
I gave <u>him</u> a cup of coffee.
I taught my <u>students</u>.
The waitress brought <u>us</u> or salads.
Answered by
Writeacher
If you have studied Latin, you'll find the same thing. Indirect objects are in the dative case and have no preposition.
Latin prepositions are used either with the accusative or the ablative case, depending on the meaning. (Usually any preposition implying movement toward something is followed by a noun or pronoun in the accusative case.)
Latin prepositions are used either with the accusative or the ablative case, depending on the meaning. (Usually any preposition implying movement toward something is followed by a noun or pronoun in the accusative case.)
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