Asked by Annie
For x such that 0<x<ƒÎ/2, the expression
ã(1-cos^2 x)/sinx + ã(1-sin^2 x)/cosx
is equivalent to:
0, 1, 2, -tanx or sin2x
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
ã(1-cos^2 x)/sinx + ã(1-sin^2 x)/cosx
is equivalent to:
0, 1, 2, -tanx or sin2x
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks.
Answers
Answered by
Reiny
I assume the symbol ã is supposed to come out as √ ?
(here is how I get √
while holding down the Alt key, press 251 on the numberpad, then release the Alt key)
√(1-cos^2 x)/sinx + √(1-sin^2 x)/cosx
√(sin^2x)/sinx + √(cos^2x)/cosx
= sinx/sinx + cosx/cosx
= 1+1
= 2
(here is how I get √
while holding down the Alt key, press 251 on the numberpad, then release the Alt key)
√(1-cos^2 x)/sinx + √(1-sin^2 x)/cosx
√(sin^2x)/sinx + √(cos^2x)/cosx
= sinx/sinx + cosx/cosx
= 1+1
= 2
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
Submit Your Answer
We prioritize human answers over AI answers.
If you are human, and you can answer this question, please submit your answer.