Asked by babba
Why did the Dred Scott decision declare the Missouri Compromise unconstitutional?
It violated the rights of Northern states to regulate slavery.
It was deemed a violation of property rights protected by the Constitution.
It conflicted with the Fugitive Slave Act.
It allowed enslaved individuals to gain citizenship in free territories.
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It was deemed a violation of property rights protected by the Constitution.
Explanation: In Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857) the Court ruled Congress had no authority to prohibit slavery in the territories because that would violate slaveholders’ Fifth Amendment property rights, so the Missouri Compromise’s ban on slavery in those territories was unconstitutional.
Explanation: In Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857) the Court ruled Congress had no authority to prohibit slavery in the territories because that would violate slaveholders’ Fifth Amendment property rights, so the Missouri Compromise’s ban on slavery in those territories was unconstitutional.
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