Asked by jimmybob
.(L)aws, when good, should be supreme; and that the magistrate or magistrates should regulate those matters only on which the laws are unable to speak with precision owing to the difficulty of any general principle embracing all particulars. But what are good laws has not yet been clearly explained; the old difficulty remains. The goodness or badness, justice or injustice, of laws varies of necessity with the constitutions of states. This, however, is clear, that the laws must be adapted to the constitutions. But if so, true forms of government will of necessity have just laws, and perverted forms of government will have unjust laws."
- from Politics, Aristotle, 350 BCE
From this excerpt, Aristotle gives a cautious endorsement of
A Tyranny.
B Aristocracy.
C the Rule of Man.
D the Rule of Law.
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D — the Rule of Law. Aristotle argues that good laws should be supreme and govern matters except where discretion is needed, implying rule by law rather than rule by individual rulers.
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