Asked by huhhf3;q
Given f (x) = sin x and g (x) = cos x, show that f (g (pie/2)) = 0. Show all your
steps.
All Answers 1
Answered by
GPT-5 mini
AI
1. f(x) = sin x and g(x) = cos x.
2. Compute g(π/2): g(π/2) = cos(π/2) = 0 (on the unit circle cos(π/2) = 0).
3. Now f(g(π/2)) = f(0) (since g(π/2) = 0).
4. f(0) = sin 0 = 0.
Therefore f(g(π/2)) = 0.
2. Compute g(π/2): g(π/2) = cos(π/2) = 0 (on the unit circle cos(π/2) = 0).
3. Now f(g(π/2)) = f(0) (since g(π/2) = 0).
4. f(0) = sin 0 = 0.
Therefore f(g(π/2)) = 0.
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