Asked by huhhf3;q
Given f (x) = sin x and g (x) = cos x, show that f (g (pie/2)) = 0. Show all your steps.
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We want f(g(π/2)). Given f(x) = sin x and g(x) = cos x, compute step by step.
1. g(π/2) = cos(π/2).
cos(π/2) = 0 (since π/2 radians = 90°, and cos 90° = 0).
2. f(g(π/2)) = f(0) = sin(0).
sin(0) = 0.
Therefore f(g(π/2)) = 0.
1. g(π/2) = cos(π/2).
cos(π/2) = 0 (since π/2 radians = 90°, and cos 90° = 0).
2. f(g(π/2)) = f(0) = sin(0).
sin(0) = 0.
Therefore f(g(π/2)) = 0.
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