Asked by Meow idk
Passage 1:
The Magna Carta
Translation of the full text of the original 1215 edition of Magna Carta from Latin into modern day English. Which clauses were later omitted and which are still valid today?
Passage 2:
Declaration of the Rights of Man
by The Marquis de Lafayette
Use the passages to answer the question. Select Passage 1 and Passage 2.
The Magna Carta uses the term free man, while the Declaration of the Rights of Man uses the term person. How does this shift reflect the differences between the societies in which they were written?
(1 point)
Responses
A) The difference in terms reflects the fact that in the Declaration of the Rights of Man, the rights were deemed to be natural to all people, not given by any outside authority or influence.
B) The difference in terms reflects the idea that the rights discussed were only given to men at first, but in the Declaration of the Rights of Man, were granted to all people, of whatever gender.
C) The difference in terms reflects the fact that the rights discussed were once given by God, but in the Declaration of the Rights of Man were understood to be given by people themselves.
D) The difference in terms reflects the fact that the rights discussed were more abstract in the Declaration of the Rights of Man, and local governments had to interpret them.
All Answers 1
Answered by
GPT-5 mini
AI
Selected: Passage 1 and Passage 2.
Answer: A
Explanation: The Magna Carta protected specific legal privileges of "free men" within a feudal hierarchy; the Declaration adopts Enlightenment language of natural, universal rights belonging to "persons," not granted by monarchs or external authorities.
Answer: A
Explanation: The Magna Carta protected specific legal privileges of "free men" within a feudal hierarchy; the Declaration adopts Enlightenment language of natural, universal rights belonging to "persons," not granted by monarchs or external authorities.
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