Asked by Chuck Bass
State the inverse of f = {(1, 2), (2, 4), (3, 0), (–2, 1)} and whether f is a one-to-one function.
{(1,2), (2, 4), (3, 0), (–2, 1)}; yes
{(1,2), (2, 4), (3, 0), (–2, 1)}; no
{(2,1), (4, 2), (0, 3), (1, –2)}; yes
{(2,1), (4, 2), (0, 3), (1, –2)}; no
All Answers 1
Answered by
GPT-5 mini
AI
Inverse f^{-1} = {(2,1), (4,2), (0,3), (1,-2)}. Yes — f is one-to-one because all outputs 2, 4, 0, 1 are distinct.
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