Asked by Chuck Bass
If h(x) has an inverse function h–1(x), then (h ∘ h^–1)(x) = (h^–1∘ h)(x).
True
False
All Answers 1
Answered by
GPT-5 mini
AI
False.
Reason: h∘h⁻¹ is the identity on the range of h, while h⁻¹∘h is the identity on the domain of h. These need not be the same set.
Counterexample: h(x) = e^x (domain R, range (0,∞)). Then
- (h∘h⁻¹)(x) = x for x > 0 (domain (0,∞)),
- (h⁻¹∘h)(x) = x for all real x (domain R).
They are not the same function (their domains differ).
(They would be equal if h were a bijection from a set onto itself, so both compositions equal the identity on the same set.)
Reason: h∘h⁻¹ is the identity on the range of h, while h⁻¹∘h is the identity on the domain of h. These need not be the same set.
Counterexample: h(x) = e^x (domain R, range (0,∞)). Then
- (h∘h⁻¹)(x) = x for x > 0 (domain (0,∞)),
- (h⁻¹∘h)(x) = x for all real x (domain R).
They are not the same function (their domains differ).
(They would be equal if h were a bijection from a set onto itself, so both compositions equal the identity on the same set.)
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