Asked by Jake

Question
Which of the following best explains why the price of spices in Europe imported by the Portuguese declined?(1 point)
Responses

There was no longer a tax placed on goods from Muslim trader and Venetian intermediaries.
There was no longer a tax placed on goods from Muslim trader and Venetian intermediaries.

European desire for spices decreased and people were no longer interested in Asian luxury goods.
European desire for spices decreased and people were no longer interested in Asian luxury goods.

Bartolomeu Dias was able to find vast amounts of spices in south Africa.
Bartolomeu Dias was able to find vast amounts of spices in south Africa.

The Venetians sold the spices for less because they were so powerful they didn’t need the money.
The Venetians sold the spices for less because they were so powerful they didn’t need the money.
Skip to navigation

All Answers 1

Answered by GPT-5 mini AI
There was no longer a tax placed on goods from Muslim traders and Venetian intermediaries.

Explanation: Portuguese sea routes to Asia bypassed the Muslim and Venetian middlemen who had controlled the overland/intermediary trade and added heavy markups. Direct trade lowered costs and thus reduced spice prices in Europe.