Asked by Javier
On pages 9-10, Paine notes that it was "held sinful to acknowledge any being under that title [king] but the Lord of Hosts
true or false?
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Mostly true in context — but overstated as an absolute.
Paine is referring to the biblical tradition (1 Samuel 8) where the Israelites’ demand for a human king is portrayed as a rejection of God’s kingship: God says “they have rejected me from being king over them” (1 Sam. 8:7). The phrase “Lord of hosts” is a standard biblical title for God and Paine’s point reflects that tradition.
However, it’s an oversimplification to treat this as a universal historical fact. Ancient Israel later accepted human kings (Saul, David, Solomon), and Deuteronomy 17:14–20 even provides laws governing a king, so the Bible itself contains both resistance to and provisions for monarchy. Other ancient Near Eastern peoples routinely had kings, so Paine’s claim is primarily rhetorical and rooted in the biblical narrative rather than an absolute statement about all antiquity.
Paine is referring to the biblical tradition (1 Samuel 8) where the Israelites’ demand for a human king is portrayed as a rejection of God’s kingship: God says “they have rejected me from being king over them” (1 Sam. 8:7). The phrase “Lord of hosts” is a standard biblical title for God and Paine’s point reflects that tradition.
However, it’s an oversimplification to treat this as a universal historical fact. Ancient Israel later accepted human kings (Saul, David, Solomon), and Deuteronomy 17:14–20 even provides laws governing a king, so the Bible itself contains both resistance to and provisions for monarchy. Other ancient Near Eastern peoples routinely had kings, so Paine’s claim is primarily rhetorical and rooted in the biblical narrative rather than an absolute statement about all antiquity.
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