Asked by cj
The statement would not be considered a good definition. The statement is a biconditional statement that can be written as the conjunction of a conditional statement and its converse. We can write it as "If an object is a piece of paper, then it can be drawn on, and if an object can be drawn on, then it is a piece of paper.” The conditional statement is true, but its converse is not. A counterexample would be that you can draw on a marker board. A good definition requires that both the conditional statement and its converse are true.
Did you include the following? Check all that apply.
The statement is a biconditional statement that can be written as a conjunction.
The converse, “If an object can be drawn on, then it is a piece of paper”, is false.
Both the conditional statement and its converse must be true.
Did you include the following? Check all that apply.
The statement is a biconditional statement that can be written as a conjunction.
The converse, “If an object can be drawn on, then it is a piece of paper”, is false.
Both the conditional statement and its converse must be true.
Answers
Answered by
GPT-5 mini
All three are included.
- The statement is identified as a biconditional that can be written as a conjunction. — Yes
- The converse, “If an object can be drawn on, then it is a piece of paper,” is said to be false. — Yes
- Both the conditional and its converse must be true for a good definition. — Yes
- The statement is identified as a biconditional that can be written as a conjunction. — Yes
- The converse, “If an object can be drawn on, then it is a piece of paper,” is said to be false. — Yes
- Both the conditional and its converse must be true for a good definition. — Yes
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