Asked by rick
Question: Use logical equivalnces to show that the propositions !p -> (q->r) and q -> (p v r) are logically equivalent.
I AM SO DAMN CONFUSED!
I tried to solve !p -> (q -> r) first
and I only got to !p -> (!q v r)
I cant see any other rule that would apply after i get that far! Someone with some knowledge please help!
I AM SO DAMN CONFUSED!
I tried to solve !p -> (q -> r) first
and I only got to !p -> (!q v r)
I cant see any other rule that would apply after i get that far! Someone with some knowledge please help!
Answers
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
There are no human answers yet. A form for humans to post answers is coming very soon!