Asked by Jane

Hello, this is an upper-level question, and I would sincerely appreciate help before Tuesday.

I am reading a journal article, and there is one conclusion in it that I do not understand.

It predicts a postsynaptic mechanism when EPSP amplitudes do not vary across trials, and a presynaptic mechanism when EPSP amplitudes do vary across trials.

I don't understand how the variation is related to the pre/postsynaptic mechanism.

I appreciate your help and guidance. Thanks.

Answers

There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
There are no human answers yet. A form for humans to post answers is coming very soon!

Related Questions