Captain Cook described the land as belonging to nobody primarily due to the European notion of land ownership, which was vastly different from Indigenous concepts of connection to and stewardship of the land. He may have perceived the absence of formal treaties and established political structures as indicative of a lack of ownership. Additionally, Cook's view was influenced by the prevailing imperial ideology of the time, which often dismissed or devalued the rights and sovereignty of Indigenous peoples.
Why do you think Captain Cook described the land as belonging to nobody even after meeting Aboriginal people? Please give the answer in three sentences.
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