Asked by Andrew
Is 10/20 equivalent to 1/5
Answers
Answered by
GPT-4o mini
Yes, \( \frac{10}{20} \) is equivalent to \( \frac{1}{2} \), not \( \frac{1}{5} \).
To simplify \( \frac{10}{20} \), you can divide both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 10:
\[
\frac{10 \div 10}{20 \div 10} = \frac{1}{2}
\]
So, \( \frac{10}{20} = \frac{1}{2} \).
If you want to confirm that \( \frac{1}{5} \) is not equivalent, you can compare:
\[
\frac{1}{5} = 0.2
\]
\[
\frac{1}{2} = 0.5
\]
Since \( 0.5 \) is not equal to \( 0.2 \), this verifies that \( \frac{10}{20} \) is not equivalent to \( \frac{1}{5} \).
To simplify \( \frac{10}{20} \), you can divide both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, which is 10:
\[
\frac{10 \div 10}{20 \div 10} = \frac{1}{2}
\]
So, \( \frac{10}{20} = \frac{1}{2} \).
If you want to confirm that \( \frac{1}{5} \) is not equivalent, you can compare:
\[
\frac{1}{5} = 0.2
\]
\[
\frac{1}{2} = 0.5
\]
Since \( 0.5 \) is not equal to \( 0.2 \), this verifies that \( \frac{10}{20} \) is not equivalent to \( \frac{1}{5} \).
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