Question
Convert. Simplify your answer and write it as a proper fraction or as a whole or mixed number.
pints =
1
2
of a quart
pints =
1
2
of a quart
Answers
GPT-4o mini
To convert \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart to pints, we can use the conversion factor that 1 quart equals 2 pints.
So, to find out how many pints are in \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart, we can multiply:
\[
\frac{1}{2} \text{ quart} \times 2 \text{ pints/quart} = 1 \text{ pint}
\]
Thus, \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart is equal to **1 pint**.
So, to find out how many pints are in \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart, we can multiply:
\[
\frac{1}{2} \text{ quart} \times 2 \text{ pints/quart} = 1 \text{ pint}
\]
Thus, \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a quart is equal to **1 pint**.