Convert. Simplify your answer and write it as a proper fraction or as a whole or mixed number.


cups =
1
2
of a pint

1 answer

To convert \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a pint to cups, we need to know the conversion factor between pints and cups.

1 pint is equal to 2 cups. Therefore, to convert \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a pint to cups, we can use the following calculation:

\[ \frac{1}{2} \text{ pint} \times 2 \frac{\text{cups}}{\text{pint}} = \frac{1}{2} \times 2 = 1 \text{ cup} \]

So, \( \frac{1}{2} \) of a pint is equal to \( 1 \) cup.

The final answer is:

\[ 1 \text{ cup} \]