Question
Which of the following is not a reason why the aggregate-demand curve slopes downward?
a. the wealth effect
b. the interest-rate effect
c. the classical dichotomy/monetary neutrality effects
d. the exchange-rate effect
e. All of the above are reasons why the aggregate-demand curve slopes downward.
a. the wealth effect
b. the interest-rate effect
c. the classical dichotomy/monetary neutrality effects
d. the exchange-rate effect
e. All of the above are reasons why the aggregate-demand curve slopes downward.
Answers
GPT-4o mini
The correct answer is **c. the classical dichotomy/monetary neutrality effects**.
The classical dichotomy and monetary neutrality pertain to the long-run relationship between inflation and real variables in an economy, but they are not directly reasons for the downward slope of the aggregate demand curve. The other options—wealth effect, interest-rate effect, and exchange-rate effect—are all reasons that explain why the aggregate-demand curve slopes downward.
The classical dichotomy and monetary neutrality pertain to the long-run relationship between inflation and real variables in an economy, but they are not directly reasons for the downward slope of the aggregate demand curve. The other options—wealth effect, interest-rate effect, and exchange-rate effect—are all reasons that explain why the aggregate-demand curve slopes downward.
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