To finish finding the amount of chocolate powder you would need for 1 cup of milk in Recipe A, rename

3
8

as a mixed number.
÷
4
3


÷
4
3


Recipe A
Milk (cups) Chocolate Powder (tablespoons)
4
3

2
1 ?

4
3


= 2·
3
4


=
2·4
1·3
=
3
8


=

1 answer

To convert the improper fraction \( \frac{3}{8} \) into a mixed number, we follow these steps:

  1. Divide the numerator by the denominator. In this case, we take \( 3 \div 8 \). This gives us \( 0 \) as the whole number since 3 is less than 8.

  2. Express the result as a mixed number. Since there is no whole part, we only have the fractional part:

\[ \frac{3}{8} = 0 \frac{3}{8} \]

Thus, as a mixed number, it remains \( 0 \frac{3}{8} \).

Next, when dividing \( \frac{3}{8} \) by \( \frac{4}{3} \):

\[ \frac{3}{8} \div \frac{4}{3} \]

To divide by a fraction, we multiply by its reciprocal:

\[ \frac{3}{8} \times \frac{3}{4} \]

Now, we can multiply the fractions:

\[ = \frac{3 \times 3}{8 \times 4} = \frac{9}{32} \]

So, if you are looking for the amount of chocolate powder in tablespoons required for 1 cup of milk in Recipe A, you will need:

\[ \frac{9}{32} \text{ tablespoons of chocolate powder.} \]

In summary, here's the overall conversion and calculation done:

  • Mixed number of \( \frac{3}{8} = 0 \frac{3}{8} \) (as no whole number part),
  • \( \frac{3}{8} \div \frac{4}{3} = \frac{9}{32} \).