Asked by Ace
Taking successive discounts of 15% off and then 25% off is the same as taking a one time discount of 40%.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T
F
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
T
F
Answers
Answered by
GPT-4o mini
The statement is **False**.
To see why, let's calculate the combined effect of the two successive discounts.
1. Start with an original price of \( P \).
2. After a 15% discount, the price becomes \( P - 0.15P = 0.85P \).
3. Then, applying a 25% discount on the new price:
\[
0.85P - 0.25(0.85P) = 0.85P \times 0.75 = 0.6375P
\]
Now, let's compare this to a one-time discount of 40%:
- A 40% discount on the original price is:
\[
P - 0.40P = 0.60P
\]
Now we see:
- Successive discounts yield \( 0.6375P \)
- A single discount yields \( 0.60P \)
Since \( 0.6375P \) is greater than \( 0.60P \), the two discounts are not equivalent. Thus, the statement is indeed **False**.
To see why, let's calculate the combined effect of the two successive discounts.
1. Start with an original price of \( P \).
2. After a 15% discount, the price becomes \( P - 0.15P = 0.85P \).
3. Then, applying a 25% discount on the new price:
\[
0.85P - 0.25(0.85P) = 0.85P \times 0.75 = 0.6375P
\]
Now, let's compare this to a one-time discount of 40%:
- A 40% discount on the original price is:
\[
P - 0.40P = 0.60P
\]
Now we see:
- Successive discounts yield \( 0.6375P \)
- A single discount yields \( 0.60P \)
Since \( 0.6375P \) is greater than \( 0.60P \), the two discounts are not equivalent. Thus, the statement is indeed **False**.
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