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sin x / 1-cosx is equivalent to:
sin x / 1 + cos x Is this right?
2 answers
No. Since the numerators are equal, the denominators would have to be equal.
It might also be of interest to note that:
sin x/(1-cosx) = cot(x/2)
sin x/(1+cosx) = tan(x/2)
The product of the two is equal to 1, but they are not equal to each other.
It IS true that
sin x/(1-cosx) = (1+cosx)/sinx
It might also be of interest to note that:
sin x/(1-cosx) = cot(x/2)
sin x/(1+cosx) = tan(x/2)
The product of the two is equal to 1, but they are not equal to each other.
It IS true that
sin x/(1-cosx) = (1+cosx)/sinx
1 answer