No, the expression \( \frac{\pi}{2} \div 2 \) simplifies to \( \frac{\pi}{4} \), not \( \pi \).
When you divide \( \frac{\pi}{2} \) by 2, you multiply by the reciprocal of 2, which is \( \frac{1}{2} \):
\[ \frac{\pi}{2} \div 2 = \frac{\pi}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} = \frac{\pi}{4} \]
So, the final result is \( \frac{\pi}{4} \), not \( \pi \).