Question

Bertie needs 2 1/3 cups of flour for each pan of biscuits she bakes. She wants to bake 3 1/2 pans of biscuits.

How many cups of flour does Bertie need?

answers:

4 1/6

5 5/6

6 1/6

8 1/6

Answer 1

are you sure ?

Answer 2

To find out how many cups of flour Bertie needs, you need to multiply the amount of flour required for one pan of biscuits by the number of pans she wants to bake.

Bertie needs \(2 \frac{1}{3}\) cups of flour for each pan and she wants to bake \(3 \frac{1}{2}\) pans.

First, let's convert these mixed numbers to improper fractions.

1. Convert \(2 \frac{1}{3}\):
\[
2 \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2 \times 3 + 1}{3} = \frac{6 + 1}{3} = \frac{7}{3}
\]

2. Convert \(3 \frac{1}{2}\):
\[
3 \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3 \times 2 + 1}{2} = \frac{6 + 1}{2} = \frac{7}{2}
\]

Next, multiply these two improper fractions:
\[
\text{Flour needed} = \frac{7}{3} \times \frac{7}{2} = \frac{7 \times 7}{3 \times 2} = \frac{49}{6}
\]

Now, convert \(\frac{49}{6}\) back to a mixed number:
\[
49 \div 6 = 8 \quad \text{(with a remainder of 1)}
\]
So we have:
\[
\frac{49}{6} = 8 \frac{1}{6}
\]

Thus, the total amount of flour Bertie needs is \(8 \frac{1}{6}\) cups.

The correct answer is **8 1/6**.

Answer 3

Let's recheck the calculations step-by-step to ensure everything is correct.

1. **Determine the amount of flour per pan**:
Bertie needs \(2 \frac{1}{3}\) cups of flour for each pan of biscuits. Let's convert this to an improper fraction:
\[
2 \frac{1}{3} = \frac{2 \times 3 + 1}{3} = \frac{6 + 1}{3} = \frac{7}{3}
\]

2. **Determine the number of pans**:
Bertie wants to bake \(3 \frac{1}{2}\) pans. We'll convert this to an improper fraction as well:
\[
3 \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3 \times 2 + 1}{2} = \frac{6 + 1}{2} = \frac{7}{2}
\]

3. **Calculate the total amount of flour needed**:
Now, we multiply the amount of flour per pan by the number of pans:
\[
\text{Flour needed} = \frac{7}{3} \times \frac{7}{2} = \frac{7 \times 7}{3 \times 2} = \frac{49}{6}
\]

4. **Convert \(\frac{49}{6}\) back to a mixed number**:
To convert \(\frac{49}{6}\) to a mixed number, we divide 49 by 6:
\[
49 \div 6 = 8 \quad \text{(with a remainder of 1)}
\]
This means:
\[
\frac{49}{6} = 8 \frac{1}{6}
\]

After double-checking the calculations, the final answer remains \(8 \frac{1}{6}\) cups of flour.

So, yes, I am sure. The correct answer is **8 1/6**.