Question

2/3 • 1 1/4 in simplest form

Answer 1

To multiply \( \frac{2}{3} \) by \( 1 \frac{1}{4} \), you first need to convert the mixed number \( 1 \frac{1}{4} \) into an improper fraction.

1. Convert \( 1 \frac{1}{4} \):
\[
1 \frac{1}{4} = 1 + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{4}{4} + \frac{1}{4} = \frac{5}{4}
\]

2. Now, multiply \( \frac{2}{3} \) by \( \frac{5}{4} \):
\[
\frac{2}{3} \times \frac{5}{4} = \frac{2 \times 5}{3 \times 4} = \frac{10}{12}
\]

3. Simplify \( \frac{10}{12} \):
\[
\frac{10}{12} = \frac{5}{6} \quad \text{(dividing both the numerator and denominator by 2)}
\]

Thus, \( \frac{2}{3} \cdot 1 \frac{1}{4} \) in simplest form is \( \frac{5}{6} \).