Asked by Laly
Show that cos M(1/cosM-cosM) is equal to sin^2M
Answers
Answered by
Damon
cos m [ (1/cos m) - cos m ]
I assume
well that is
1 - cos^2 m
and we all know that cos^2 m + sin^2 m = 1
I assume
well that is
1 - cos^2 m
and we all know that cos^2 m + sin^2 m = 1
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