True.
The number \( 5 \frac{1}{7} \) can be converted to an improper fraction:
\[ 5 \frac{1}{7} = \frac{36}{7} \]
Now, let's compare \( 5 \frac{1}{4} \) (which is \( \frac{21}{4} \)) to see if \( 5 \frac{1}{7} \) lies between \( 5 \) and \( 5 \frac{1}{4} \).
We can convert the whole numbers to improper fractions:
- \( 5 = \frac{35}{7} \)
- \( 5 \frac{1}{4} = \frac{21}{4} = \frac{42}{8} \) (to have a common denominator of 28)
- \( 5 \frac{1}{7} = \frac{36}{7} = \frac{144}{28} \)
- Also, \( \frac{35}{7} = \frac{140}{28} \) and \( \frac{21}{4} = \frac{42}{8} = \frac{84}{16} = \frac{168}{32}\)
It’s clear that \( 5 \frac{1}{7} \) lies between \( 5 \) and \( 5 \frac{1}{4} \):
So, the final answer is True.