The correct response is:
by creating a proof that shows directly how multiplying a rational and irrational number leads to an irrational answer.
To provide a clearer explanation, we can demonstrate that multiplying a rational number by an irrational number usually results in an irrational number.
Here’s a proof:
- Let \( r \) be a rational number, which can be expressed as \( r = \frac{a}{b} \), where \( a \) and \( b \) are integers and \( b \neq 0 \).
- Let \( x \) be an irrational number.
- We want to show that the product \( r \cdot x \) is irrational.
Assume for the sake of contradiction that \( r \cdot x \) is rational. Then we could write:
\[ r \cdot x = \frac{m}{n} \]
for some integers \( m \) and \( n \) (where \( n \neq 0 \)). Rearranging gives:
\[ x = \frac{r \cdot x}{r} = \frac{m}{n \cdot b} = \frac{(a \cdot m)}{(b \cdot n)} \]
Since \( a \), \( b \), \( m \), and \( n \) are all integers, the right side of the equation is a ratio of integers, which means \( x \) would be rational.
This contradicts our initial statement that \( x \) is irrational. Therefore, \( r \cdot x \) must be irrational.
This proof demonstrates that multiplying a non-zero rational number by an irrational number results in an irrational product, directly disproving Ryiaz's claim.