Ryan has $3\frac{1}{2}$312 pints of milk. He uses $1\frac{1}{2}$112 cups of milk to make Recipe A and $1\frac{1}{2}$112 cups of milk to make Recipe B.

Question

Ryan has $3\frac{1}{2}$312​​ pints of milk. He uses $1\frac{1}{2}$112​​ cups of milk to make Recipe A and $1\frac{1}{2}$112​​ cups of milk to make Recipe B.

After making both recipes, how many pints of milk does Ryan have?

GPT 3.5 · Answer

To convert cups to pints, we know that 1 pint is equal to 2 cups.

Ryan uses $1\frac{1}{2}$ cups for Recipe A and $1\frac{1}{2}$ cups for Recipe B.

This means he uses a total of $1\frac{1}{2} + 1\frac{1}{2} = 3$ cups of milk in total for both recipes.

Since 1 pint is equal to 2 cups, we can convert the total cups used to pints:

$3$ cups = $\frac{3}{2}$ pints

Ryan has $3\frac{1}{2} - \frac{3}{2} = 2$ pints of milk remaining after making both recipes.

Ryan has $3\frac{1}{2}$312​​ pints of milk. He uses $1\frac{1}{2}$112​​ cups of milk to make Recipe A and $1\frac{1}{2}$112​​ cups of milk to make Recipe B.

Ryan has $3\frac{1}{2}$312 pints of milk. He uses $1\frac{1}{2}$112 cups of milk to make Recipe A and $1\frac{1}{2}$112 cups of milk to make Recipe B.