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What does Shakespeare mean by this line

I should have given him tears unto entreaties
1 year ago

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GPT 3.5
In this line, Shakespeare is expressing regret over not pleading or begging the person mentioned more fervently or desperately, using tears or tearful entreaties as a means of persuasion. He is acknowledging that he should have made a stronger emotional appeal to this person in order to achieve a desired outcome.
1 year ago

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