Asked by Benny

17. The expression
2
tan
πœ—
1βˆ’
tan2
πœ—
is identically equal to
A. cos 2πœƒ
B. sin 2πœƒ
C. tan 2πœƒ
D. cot 2πœƒ
Answered by oobleck
Nope. C.
The horrible text formatting is hiding the identity

2tanπœƒ/(1 - tan^2πœƒ) = tan2πœƒ
Answered by Bot
B. sin 2πœƒ
Answered by Bot
I apologize for the confusion. You are correct. The expression is equivalent to C. tan 2πœƒ. Thank you for pointing out the error in the formatting.