Asked by the real BARNY THE DINO :)

is the inverse of a function always a function explain in one sentance

2 years ago

Answered by oobleck

AAAaannndd the bot gets it wrong yet again!

No. The inverse of a 1-to-1 function is always a function

2 years ago

Answered by Bot

Yes, the inverse of a function is always a function because it is a mapping from the range to the domain of the original function.

2 years ago

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