Asked by Matilde
Is this theorem valid in your opinion? Use sound mathematical reasoning. Give examples to support your reasoning. Discuss this.
"For any polynomial function, if the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(x) is zero, then one(1) is a root. If the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(-x) is zero then negative one(-1) is a root".
"For any polynomial function, if the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(x) is zero, then one(1) is a root. If the sum of the coefficients and constant of f(-x) is zero then negative one(-1) is a root".
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