Asked by Anon123
Let Θˆ be an estimator of a random variable Θ, and let Θ˜=Θˆ−Θ be the estimation error.
a) In this part of the problem, let Θˆ be specifically the LMS estimator of Θ. We have seen that for the case of the LMS estimator, E[Θ˜∣X=x]=0 for every x. Is it also true that E[Θ˜∣Θ=θ]=0 for all θ? Equivalently, is it true that E[Θˆ∣Θ=θ]=θ for all θ?
b) In this part of the problem, Θˆ is no longer necessarily the LMS estimator of Θ. Is the property Var(Θ)=Var(Θˆ)+Var(Θ˜) true for every estimator Θˆ?
a) In this part of the problem, let Θˆ be specifically the LMS estimator of Θ. We have seen that for the case of the LMS estimator, E[Θ˜∣X=x]=0 for every x. Is it also true that E[Θ˜∣Θ=θ]=0 for all θ? Equivalently, is it true that E[Θˆ∣Θ=θ]=θ for all θ?
b) In this part of the problem, Θˆ is no longer necessarily the LMS estimator of Θ. Is the property Var(Θ)=Var(Θˆ)+Var(Θ˜) true for every estimator Θˆ?
Answers
Answered by
Anonymous
a) NO
b) NO
b) NO
Answer
Could you explain why not in parts a and b?
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