Asked by PLEASE HELP ME
Use DE←→ and FG←→ to answer the question.
DE←→ contains the points D(1,−2) and E(3,4).
FG←→ contains the points F(−1,2) and G(4,0).
Is DE←→ perpendicular to FG←→? Why or why not?
Yes, because the product of the slopes is 1.
No, because the product of the slopes is not −1.
No, because the product of the slopes is not 1.
Yes, because the product of the slopes is −1.
DE←→ contains the points D(1,−2) and E(3,4).
FG←→ contains the points F(−1,2) and G(4,0).
Is DE←→ perpendicular to FG←→? Why or why not?
Yes, because the product of the slopes is 1.
No, because the product of the slopes is not −1.
No, because the product of the slopes is not 1.
Yes, because the product of the slopes is −1.
Answers
Answered by
PLEASE HELP ME
Is it D?
Answered by
PLEASE HELP ME
I tried A but it was wrong . Both the slopes are different not the same
Answered by
oobleck
So, you guessed twice. That's not the same as solving the problem.
DE has slope (4+2)/(3-1) = 4
FG has slope (0-2)/(4+1) = -2/5
since 4 * -2/5 ≠ the lines are not perpendicular ... (B)
DE has slope (4+2)/(3-1) = 4
FG has slope (0-2)/(4+1) = -2/5
since 4 * -2/5 ≠ the lines are not perpendicular ... (B)
Answered by
Reiny
slope of ED = (4+2)/(3-1) = 3
slope of FG = (0-2)/(4+1) = -2/5
For 2 lines to be perpendicular the product of their slopes must be -1
So what is your conclusion ?
slope of FG = (0-2)/(4+1) = -2/5
For 2 lines to be perpendicular the product of their slopes must be -1
So what is your conclusion ?
Answered by
soda
its b
Answered by
the fnaf crew
b. AND THATS FINAL
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