Question
Please help me work out the following formal logic problem....
Given the premise that whoever smelt it dealt it, does it necessarily follow that whoever dealt it must also have smelt it?
No. For it is possible that nobody could have smelt it, yet the dealing was done.
Given the premise that whoever smelt it dealt it, does it necessarily follow that whoever dealt it must also have smelt it?
No. For it is possible that nobody could have smelt it, yet the dealing was done.