Asked by Tatiana
Demonstrate the if f and g are one-to-one functions then f°g is also one-to-one
Answers
Answered by
Steve
each value of x maps to one g(x)
so, each value of g(x) maps to one f(g(x))
assuming that the domains are suitably aligned ...
so, each value of g(x) maps to one f(g(x))
assuming that the domains are suitably aligned ...
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