Asked by Lyra
The following are the investment and operating costs for two machines, J and K.
Year: 0, 1, 2, 3
J: 11000, 1200, 1300
K: 13000, 1200, 1300, 1400
The WACC is 10.5%. How do I use the WACC to determine which machine is a better buy?
Year: 0, 1, 2, 3
J: 11000, 1200, 1300
K: 13000, 1200, 1300, 1400
The WACC is 10.5%. How do I use the WACC to determine which machine is a better buy?
Answers
Answered by
MathMate
i=10.5%=.105
n=2 for machine J, =3 for machine K
We assume machine J lasts 2 years with no salvage value, same for machine K, but three years.
Case J:
PV=-11000-1200/(1.105)-1300/1.105^2=
=-13150.65
annual expense over 2 years
A=P*(A/P,10.5%,3)
=-13150.65*((i*(1+i)^n)/((1+i)^n-1))
=-13150.65*((.105(1.105^2)/(1.105^2-1)
=-13150.65*0.580059
=-$7628.16
Case K:
PV=-13000-1200/1.105-1300/1.105^2-1400/1.105^3
=-16188.28
annual expense over 3 years
A=P*(A/P,10.5%,3)
=-16188.28*((i*(1+i)^n)/((1+i)^n-1))
=-16188.28*((.105(1.105^3)/(1.105^3-1)
=-16188.28*0.40566
=-$6566.92
Since annual expense for machine K is lower, it is a better buy.
Another way to do this is compare the present values of buying 3 machine J with the PV of 2 machine K (total 6 years in each case).
It is less realistic because the machines may not cost the same 2,3 or 4 years from now.
Here it is anyway:
Machine J:
PV=-13150.652-13150.652/1.105^2-13150.652/1.105^4
=-32741.43
Machine K:
PV=-16188.28-16188.28/1.105^3
=-28186.42
Again, Machine K has a lower (negative) cash flow over 6 years.
n=2 for machine J, =3 for machine K
We assume machine J lasts 2 years with no salvage value, same for machine K, but three years.
Case J:
PV=-11000-1200/(1.105)-1300/1.105^2=
=-13150.65
annual expense over 2 years
A=P*(A/P,10.5%,3)
=-13150.65*((i*(1+i)^n)/((1+i)^n-1))
=-13150.65*((.105(1.105^2)/(1.105^2-1)
=-13150.65*0.580059
=-$7628.16
Case K:
PV=-13000-1200/1.105-1300/1.105^2-1400/1.105^3
=-16188.28
annual expense over 3 years
A=P*(A/P,10.5%,3)
=-16188.28*((i*(1+i)^n)/((1+i)^n-1))
=-16188.28*((.105(1.105^3)/(1.105^3-1)
=-16188.28*0.40566
=-$6566.92
Since annual expense for machine K is lower, it is a better buy.
Another way to do this is compare the present values of buying 3 machine J with the PV of 2 machine K (total 6 years in each case).
It is less realistic because the machines may not cost the same 2,3 or 4 years from now.
Here it is anyway:
Machine J:
PV=-13150.652-13150.652/1.105^2-13150.652/1.105^4
=-32741.43
Machine K:
PV=-16188.28-16188.28/1.105^3
=-28186.42
Again, Machine K has a lower (negative) cash flow over 6 years.
Answered by
Lyra
Many thanks for your help again, MathMate!
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
Submit Your Answer
We prioritize human answers over AI answers.
If you are human, and you can answer this question, please submit your answer.