Asked by rfvv

1. I will help him.
2. I shall help him
3. I shall[stressed] help him.
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Q1: When 'shall' is stressed, does #3 have stronger volition of the subject? (stronger than #1 in meaning?)
Q2: What is the difference between #1 and #2? #1 indicates the volition of the subject. In #2, is it just a simple future tense?
Answered by Writeacher
Yes, 3 and 2 mean the same.

1 is stating a future act, while 2 includes volition. (1 is future simple case.)
Answered by Steve
A little-known fact is that

"shall" is used for first person:
I shall arise and go now.

"will" is used for 2nd and 3rd person.
They will have a great time.

These are reversed in the imperative mood. That is why the Ten Commandments read

Thou shalt not steal.
The "shall" in the 2nd person indicates command, rather than just declaration.

Sadly, as with most of the rest of English grammar, these rules are mostly unknown or ignored.

English grammar is much simpler than that of many other languages, probably due mainly to laziness and ignorance. While it is sad, the upside is that we have a nice, (mostly) simple grammar, and still manage to be understood, just at the price of more required context.
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