Asked by Anon

Which of the following equivalences is true?

x^2 ≥ 0 ⇔ (x+1)^2 ≥ 1


x^2 ≥ 0 ⇔ x^2+1 ≥ 1


x > 0 ⇔ x^2 > 0


x^2 > 0 ⇔ x^2+1 ≥ 1


x ≥ 0 ⇔ x^2 ≥ 0

Answers

Answered by PsyDAG
Looks like all of them are true.
Answered by Anon
Yes, this is what I thought!! Im so confused unless this is a trick question.
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