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Question

why is the derivative of f(x)= e^lnx
f'(x)=1?
16 years ago

Answers

Reiny
if you look in your text, or in the properties of logs, you should find the following

a^log<sub>a</sub> k = k

so e^lnx = x

then f(x) = e^lnx
= x

therefore f'(x) = 1
16 years ago

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