Asked by Hector
If n is a positive integer, prove that integral[(lnx)^ndx=((-1)^(n))*n!](lower limit=0, upper limit=1)
Thanks Again,
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Answers
Answered by
Count Iblis
First compute the integral of x^p from zero to 1. Differentiate both sides n times w.r.t. the parameter p. Then take p = 0.
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