Why do you think the Spanish felt they had the right to force the indians to work for them?
2 answers
The Indians weren't really human to them. They weren't Christian or "civilized." In addition slavery had been part of European life for centuries.
This is a subjective question. (aka opinion-based)
I am assuming you are talking about the Spanish in the Caribbean where slavery was most prominent in the 1500s.
Personally, I think the Spanish felt that they had the right to enslave the Indians because they did not view them as equals. Ironically, they were deemed as "savages" by the Spanish while the they themselves committed inhumane acts against the Indians. Conquest, torture, slavery, and disease devastated the native population. Another possible reason is their different religious views. Although the main reason for Spain's exploration to the "New World" was to find gold and resources, the Spanish had also brought missionaries along with the explorers. They had tried to convert the Indians to Christianity, but their differing views often led to warfare.
I am assuming you are talking about the Spanish in the Caribbean where slavery was most prominent in the 1500s.
Personally, I think the Spanish felt that they had the right to enslave the Indians because they did not view them as equals. Ironically, they were deemed as "savages" by the Spanish while the they themselves committed inhumane acts against the Indians. Conquest, torture, slavery, and disease devastated the native population. Another possible reason is their different religious views. Although the main reason for Spain's exploration to the "New World" was to find gold and resources, the Spanish had also brought missionaries along with the explorers. They had tried to convert the Indians to Christianity, but their differing views often led to warfare.