Asked by rfvv
1. Emma has waited for him for an hour.
2. Emma has been waiting for him for an hour.
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Are both grammatical? What is the difference between them in meaning?
2. Emma has been waiting for him for an hour.
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Are both grammatical? What is the difference between them in meaning?
Answers
Answered by
Ms. Sue
They are both grammatical. Basically they mean the same.
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