Asked by rfvv
1. He is too full.
2. He is overeating.
3. He is overeaten.
(Are the three the same in meaning?)
2. He is overeating.
3. He is overeaten.
(Are the three the same in meaning?)
Answers
Answered by
Writeacher
No. The first and second are grammatically correct, but don't mean the same thing.
The third would be correct if you change "is" to "has."
The third would be correct if you change "is" to "has."
There are no AI answers yet. The ability to request AI answers is coming soon!
Submit Your Answer
We prioritize human answers over AI answers.
If you are human, and you can answer this question, please submit your answer.